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PIB News Today for UPSC: 6 November 2026 (Satcom, Mining Auctions, Tax Devolution)

PIB releases of 5 November 2026·22 min read·Source: Press Information Bureau (pib.gov.in)
GS Paper 2GS Paper 3UPSC PrelimsUPPSC

In short: The most exam-relevant PIB news of 5 November 2026: TRAI’s satellite network authorisation (20-year, 8% of AGR), the ninth critical mineral auction tranche (20 blocks) and ₹1,09,019 crore tax devolution to States.

Today’s PIB at a Glance

1. TRAI Recommends New Satellite Communication Network Provider Authorisation and Spectrum Rules

Core topicGS Paper 3GS Paper 2TelecomSpacePrelims + Mains
Why in News: TRAI released its recommendations on a framework to authorise Satellite Communication Network (SCN) providers and assign spectrum to them, including direct-to-device (D2D) services.

Background

  • The Department of Telecommunications asked TRAI on 3 July 2025 for terms of a new SCN authorisation under Section 3(1)(b) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
  • TRAI issued a consultation paper on 8 April 2026, received comments from 31 stakeholders and counter-comments from 12, and held a virtual open house discussion on 2 July 2026 before finalising the text.

Key recommendations

  • A new SCN Provider Authorisation should cover the national area for up to 20 years, renewable for up to another 20 years.
  • Holders would sell Satellite Communication Network as a Service (SCNaaS) to eligible service providers but could not offer telecom services directly to users.
  • Fixed Satellite Service, Mobile Satellite Service and D2D services through MSS or IMT spectrum would all be allowed on these networks.
  • Feeder-link FSS spectrum would be assigned on an administrative basis, and FSS or MSS spectrum would be assigned for up to five years, extendable by up to two years.
  • The authorisation fee would be 8% of Adjusted Gross Revenue with no minimum fee, and assigned spectrum would carry a minimum annual charge of ₹3,500 per MHz.

Direct-to-device services

  • MSS-based D2D in the L and S bands should be permitted, and the Centre should encourage handset makers to build in modules for these bands.
  • IMT-based D2D should be allowed on a non-interference, non-protection basis under Article 4.4 of the ITU Radio Regulations without waiting for WRC-27.
  • It would work only if access-service operators holding the relevant IMT channel across all 22 licensed service areas agree to share it.

Concerns and way forward

  • These are recommendations, so nothing changes until DoT accepts them, notifies rules and amends the National Frequency Allocation Plan to add MSS as a secondary service in the D2D bands.
  • Satellite signals in IMT bands can interfere with terrestrial networks, so limits on aggregate electric field strength from all beams must be notified before services start.

Exam Connect

Syllabus: GS Paper 3: infrastructure, communication networks, space; GS Paper 2: regulatory bodies.

Key facts

RegulatorTRAI, on a reference from DoT
AuthorisationSCN Provider, national area, 20 years + 20 years renewal
Authorisation fee8% of AGR, no minimum

Static Connect

  • Telecommunications Act, 2023 replaced the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and the Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933, and moved telecom services to an authorisation regime.
  • ITU Radio Regulations set the global rules for spectrum; World Radiocommunication Conferences revise them, and the next is WRC-27.
  • TRAI was set up in 1997 and its recommendations are advisory on licensing matters; the Centre takes the final decision.

Prelims pointers

  • SCN authorisation is proposed under Section 3(1)(b) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
  • FSS = Fixed Satellite Service; MSS = Mobile Satellite Service; D2D = direct-to-device; NGSO = non-geostationary orbit.

Mains takeaway: A regulator that unbundles satellite networks from retail services can widen competition, but spectrum sharing with terrestrial operators needs enforceable interference limits.

Source: PIB release 2333145

2. Ninth Critical Mineral Auction Tranche, Third Exploration Licence Tranche and ANVESH, EKAM Portals Launched

Core topicGS Paper 3GS Paper 2MiningFederalismPrelims + Mains
Why in News: At the 4th Conference of Mining Ministers in Goa, the Ministry of Mines launched the ninth tranche of critical mineral block auctions (20 blocks) and the third tranche of exploration licence auctions (11 blocks).

What was launched

  • Tranche IX offers 20 critical and strategic mineral blocks across 8 States, including rare earth elements, graphite and vanadium.
  • Across the first eight tranches, 100 unique blocks were offered and 64 were auctioned, a 64% success rate, so a third of blocks still go unsold.
  • Tranche III of Exploration Licence auctions offers 11 blocks in 6 States; 11 EL blocks were auctioned in the first two tranches.
  • Exploration Licences come from Section 10BA of the MMDR Act and cover the 29 critical and deep-seated minerals in its Seventh Schedule, letting private firms explore before any mining lease.

Reforms and portals

  • The Mineral (Auction) Third Amendment Rules, 2026, notified on 16 October 2026, cut the minimum technically qualified bidders for the second round from three to two for Part D minerals, tackling a reason blocks go unsold.
  • Critical mineral blocks use a two-stage ascending forward auction won by the highest revenue share, while EL blocks use a descending reverse auction won by the lowest share.
  • Bids are due by 7 January 2027, and tender sale runs till 1 January 2027.
  • The auctions sit beside the ₹2,814 crore CAPEX scheme for lithium and nickel processing that the Cabinet approved on 4 November 2026, so mining and refining policy now move together.
  • The Indian Bureau of Mines launched ANVESH, an analytics portal for production, despatch, sale and trade data, and EKAM, a second digital portal.

Federal angle and concerns

  • Mining is a State subject in practice, since States own minerals and conduct auctions, so the conference pressed them to operationalise auctioned mines and speed up new auctions.
  • An unsold third of blocks suggests weak bidder interest, and lowering the bidder floor addresses this only partly if geological data stay thin.

Exam Connect

Syllabus: GS Paper 3: mineral resources; GS Paper 2: Centre-State relations.

Key facts

Tranche IX20 critical mineral blocks, 8 States
EL Tranche III11 blocks, 6 States
Past success64 of 100 blocks auctioned

Static Connect

  • MMDR Act, 1957 and the Mineral (Auction) Rules govern block auctions; the Seventh Schedule lists critical and deep-seated minerals.
  • Indian Bureau of Mines is the Ministry of Mines’ technical body for mineral data and mining regulation, headquartered at Nagpur.
  • Entry 54, Union List and Entry 23, State List split mining powers, with Union control to the extent Parliament declares by law.

Prelims pointers

  • Part D minerals: minimum technically qualified bidders for the second round cut from 3 to 2.
  • ANVESH = Analytics and Navigation for Valuation, Evaluation and Strategic Headway in Mining.

Mains takeaway: Critical mineral security depends on States converting auctioned blocks into producing mines, so the Centre’s reform of auction rules must be matched by State-level clearances.

Source: PIB release 2333123 · PIB release 2333352

3. India as Kimberley Process Chair Prepares for New Delhi Plenary; Engages African Diamond Producers’ Association

ImportantGS Paper 2GS Paper 3International groupingsPrelims + Mains
Why in News: India, Chair of the Kimberley Process for 2026, held a stakeholder consultation in Luanda on 3 November 2026 ahead of the New Delhi Plenary (30 November to 4 December 2026).

About the Kimberley Process

  • The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme was set up under UN General Assembly Resolution 55/56 (2000) to keep conflict diamonds out of the legitimate rough diamond trade.
  • It has 60 Participants representing 86 countries, with the EU and its Member States counted as one, and it works through governments, industry and civil society together.
  • The Chair rotates annually; India took charge on 1 January 2026 and will host the Plenary for the third time, after 2008 and 2019.

What happened

  • India’s chairship theme is Confidence, Compliance and Credibility, and the Luanda meeting covered responsible sourcing, Secretariat funding, digitalised certification and reform of the conflict diamond definition.
  • India holds Observer status in the African Diamond Producers’ Association, formed on 4 November 2006, whose members account for over 60% of global diamond production.
  • The GJEPC and ADPA MoU, approved on 4 November 2026, targets skills in sorting, valuation and manufacturing plus trade and investment links.

Exam Connect

Syllabus: GS Paper 2: international groupings and agreements affecting India; GS Paper 3: trade.

Static Connect

  • Conflict diamonds are rough diamonds sold to finance armed conflict against legitimate governments.
  • GJEPC is the export promotion council for gems and jewellery, working under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Prelims pointers

  • KP Plenary 2026: Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, 30 November to 4 December, preceded by the New Delhi Diamond Dialogue on 29 November.
  • ADPA has 15 effective members and 8 observers, including Russia and India.

Mains takeaway: Chairing a certification regime lets India shape standards for a trade in which India is a major processing centre, while courting African producers for rough supply.

Source: PIB release 2333238

4. Centre Issues Joint Advisory on Fodder and Livestock Works Under VB-G RAM G

Core topicGS Paper 2GS Paper 3Rural developmentLivestockPrelims + UPPSC
Why in News: The Departments of Rural Development and Animal Husbandry and Dairying issued a joint advisory identifying 22 permissible works for fodder and livestock infrastructure under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025.

What the advisory does

  • It picks 22 works from the 375 permissible works under the Viksit Bharat-Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) framework, covering fodder cultivation, pastures, fodder banks, silage units, animal shelters, milk collection centres and Azolla tanks.
  • States are encouraged to raise spending on such works progressively towards at least 5% of total programme expenditure, which is guidance and not a mandatory floor.
  • Gram Panchayats where more than 30% of people depend on livestock are flagged for particular attention, aiming resources at the most exposed households.
  • State Fodder Resource Development Plans prepared by ICAR-IGFRI can guide district and block planning.

Safeguards and context

  • The Act came into force on 1 July 2026 and guarantees 125 days of wage employment per rural household.
  • Works must follow Panchayati Raj-led planning through Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans, compulsory social audit, weekly public disclosure and a 40% district-level ceiling on the material component.
  • States must prepare State Action Plans through convergence of the Rural Development, Animal Husbandry and Agriculture departments.

Why it matters and concerns

  • Small, marginal and landless households depend on livestock income, so building fodder banks and shelters with wage funds turns seasonal work into assets that protect that income in dry years.
  • The advisory encourages climate-resilient choices such as perennial grasses and integrated crop-livestock systems, which link rural employment to extreme-weather mitigation.
  • The 5% spending guide and the 30% livestock-dependence marker are soft targets, so outcomes will depend on Gram Panchayats actually planning these works through Gram Sabhas and on States funding the material component within the 40% ceiling.

Exam Connect

Syllabus: GS Paper 2: rural development, panchayats; GS Paper 3: animal husbandry, rural livelihoods.

Key facts

ActVB-G RAM G Act, 2025, in force from 1 July 2026
Works22 fodder and livestock works out of 375 permissible works
Spending guideProgressively towards at least 5% of programme expenditure

Static Connect

  • Panchayats get powers over rural development under Article 243G and the Eleventh Schedule, which includes animal husbandry, dairying and poultry.
  • ICAR-IGFRI (Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute) is located at Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh.

Prelims pointers

  • The VB-G RAM G Act, 2025 came into force on 1 July 2026 and guarantees 125 days of wage employment.
  • The advisory selects 22 works from 375 permissible works.

Mains takeaway: Tying wage-employment funds to fodder assets can lift livestock incomes of landless families, but a non-binding 5% target depends on State planning capacity.

Source: PIB release 2332844

5. DRDO Flight-Tests Quasi-Ballistic Missile Pralay; Induction Becomes Imminent

ImportantGS Paper 3DefenceSecurityPrelims
Why in News: DRDO successfully flight-tested the Pralay quasi-ballistic missile on 5 November 2026 as part of user evaluation trials, and the release says its induction has become imminent.

Test details

  • The missile was launched from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the Odisha coast at about 1110 hrs, and the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, confirmed all test objectives were met.
  • Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad, and other DRDO laboratories developed it indigenously, and Bharat Dynamics Limited, a Development-cum-Production Partner, produced it.
  • The trial was a user evaluation trial in the presence of Defence Forces and industry representatives, the stage before induction.

Significance

  • A quasi-ballistic trajectory is flatter and more manoeuvrable than a classic ballistic arc, which makes interception harder for missile defences.
  • Industry production through BDL fits the indigenisation push, but induction is an announcement of intent until a service contract and deployment follow.

Exam Connect

Syllabus: GS Paper 3: defence technology, indigenisation.

Static Connect

  • DRDO is the research arm of the Ministry of Defence; its Chairman is also Secretary, Department of Defence R&D.
  • Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island (formerly Wheeler Island) off Odisha hosts the Integrated Test Range.

Prelims pointers

  • Pralay was developed by Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad, and produced by Bharat Dynamics Limited.
  • A quasi-ballistic missile flies a depressed, manoeuvrable path unlike a pure ballistic missile.

Mains takeaway: Indigenous development and industry production of missiles cuts import dependence, but the real test is how fast trials convert into inducted, supported units.

Source: PIB release 2333276 · PIB release 2333046

6. Cosmoserve Space Opens Base 1 in Hyderabad for Space Debris Removal; Minister Sets Debris-Free Space Vision for 2030

ImportantGS Paper 3SpaceS&TPrelims + Mains
Why in News: Dr Jitendra Singh inaugurated Cosmoserve Space’s Base 1 in Hyderabad, an active debris removal and in-orbit servicing facility, and announced a vision of debris-free space by 2030.

What was announced

  • Base 1 is a facility of about 14,800 square feet where space robots are designed, built, tested under space conditions and operated through mission control.
  • The startup’s Mission EMBRACE tested soft robotic petals in space in July 2026, within a year of the company’s formation.
  • The company partners with Pixel for satellites, Dhruv Aerospace Netherlands for propulsion and Skyroot Aerospace for launch.

Space economy claims

  • The Minister put India’s space economy at nearly USD 9 billion, with a target of USD 40-45 billion in the next decade.
  • Space startups have grown from single digits to nearly 450 since the space sector was opened to private players and NewSpace India Limited and IN-SPACe were created.
  • These are ministerial figures, and the debris-free goal is a vision with no stated legal or funding mechanism yet.

Exam Connect

Syllabus: GS Paper 3: space technology, private participation.

Static Connect

  • IN-SPACe is the single-window authorising and promotion agency for private space activity, within the Department of Space.
  • NewSpace India Limited is the public sector company under the Department of Space that commercialises space technology.

Prelims pointers

  • Active debris removal (ADR) means physically capturing or deorbiting defunct objects, unlike merely avoiding collisions.
  • Mission EMBRACE tested soft robotic petals in July 2026.

Mains takeaway: Orbital debris is a shared-commons problem, so India’s private debris removal efforts will matter most when backed by liability rules and international norms.

Source: PIB release 2333047

7. Centre Releases ₹1,09,019 Crore Tax Devolution Instalment to States in Advance; Uttar Pradesh Gets ₹19,208 Crore

ImportantGS Paper 2GS Paper 3Fiscal federalismPrelims + UPPSC
Why in News: The Centre released a regular tax devolution instalment of ₹1,09,019 crore to 28 States on 5 November 2026, five days ahead of the usual 10 November date, in view of the festive season.

What the release says

  • The monthly instalment normally paid on 10 November was advanced to 5 November so States can speed up capital spending and meet development and welfare expenditure.
  • Uttar Pradesh received the largest share at ₹19,208 crore, followed by Bihar at ₹10,845 crore, Madhya Pradesh at ₹8,010 crore, West Bengal at ₹7,866 crore and Maharashtra at ₹7,022 crore.
  • Sikkim (₹365 crore), Goa (₹398 crore) and Nagaland (₹524 crore) received the smallest amounts.

Why it matters

  • Devolution is untied money that States can spend on their own priorities, so an early instalment helps cash flow before festive-season spending and works contracts.
  • Advancing a date moves money forward but does not raise the total share States receive, which is fixed by the Finance Commission award.

Exam Connect

Syllabus: GS Paper 2: Centre-State financial relations; GS Paper 3: public finance.

Static Connect

  • Article 270 provides for sharing of central taxes with States, and Article 280 creates the Finance Commission that recommends the share and the formula.
  • Divisible pool excludes cesses and surcharges, which the Centre keeps entirely.

Prelims pointers

  • The advanced instalment was released on 5 November 2026 instead of 10 November.
  • Uttar Pradesh received the highest amount, ₹19,208 crore.

Mains takeaway: Predictable, formula-based devolution supports State capital spending, but advancing dates is a cash-flow measure and not an increase in States’ fiscal space.

Source: PIB release 2333166

Quick Bites for Prelims

  • Exercise Malabar 2026: INS Sahyadri reached Yokosuka, Japan, on 4 November 2026 for Malabar 2026, which brings together the navies of India, Japan, the United States and Australia; the release links India’s role to the MAHASAGAR vision. (PIB)
  • Aadhaar offline verification: UIDAI has onboarded 300 Offline Verification Seeking Entities since the Aadhaar App’s January rollout, which has seen nearly 7.5 crore downloads; offline verification is consent-based and tied to the DPDP Act’s data-minimisation approach. (PIB)
  • PM Surya Ghar Excellence Award: The Ministry of Railways topped the category for most buildings solarised by Central Ministries; 12,495 of 15,868 identified buildings (79%) have rooftop solar, with 351 MW commissioned against a 424 MW target. (PIB)
  • Finished steel consumption: India’s finished steel consumption was 99.3 Mt in April-October 2026 against 92.4 Mt a year earlier, while crude steel output was 99.1 Mt; the data come from the Ministry of Steel’s monthly release. (PIB)
  • Asset monetisation and NLMC: An Inter-Ministerial Group recommended monetisation proposals for CPSE surplus land and buildings worth over ₹1,100 crore; the National Land Monetization Corporation, announced in Union Budget 2021-22, is a wholly owned government company under the Department of Public Enterprises. (PIB)
  • UBC 63 is a double cluster: Indian astronomers using ESA’s Gaia data found that the open cluster UBC 63 is two clusters of about 21 million and 562 million years, which passed within about 7 parsecs roughly 6 million years ago and are not bound to each other. (PIB)

Practice Questions

Prelims MCQs

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding TRAI’s recommendations on satellite communication:
1. A new Satellite Communication Network Provider Authorisation is proposed under Section 3(1)(b) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
2. Authorised SCN providers would be allowed to offer telecom services directly to end users.
3. Feeder-link FSS spectrum would be assigned to SCN providers on an administrative basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (b)

  • Statement 1 is correct. The new authorisation is proposed under Section 3(1)(b) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, at the request of DoT.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. SCN providers would supply network capacity as a service (SCNaaS) to eligible service providers and may not provide telecom services directly to users.
  • Statement 3 is correct. TRAI recommends administrative assignment of FSS spectrum for feeder links.

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Kimberley Process:
1. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme was established pursuant to UN General Assembly Resolution 55/56.
2. India holds the Chairship of the Kimberley Process for 2026.
3. The Chairship is held permanently by a founding Participant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (c)

  • Statement 1 is correct. The scheme was set up pursuant to UNGA Resolution 55/56 (2000) to keep conflict diamonds out of the legitimate trade.
  • Statement 2 is correct. India took over the Chairship on 1 January 2026 and hosts the Plenary in New Delhi from 30 November to 4 December 2026.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The Chairship rotates annually among Participants; it is not permanent.

Q3. With reference to the mineral auctions launched at the 4th Conference of Mining Ministers, consider the following statements:
1. Exploration Licences are granted under Section 10BA of the MMDR Act for critical and deep-seated minerals.
2. Exploration Licence blocks are auctioned through an ascending forward auction won by the highest revenue share bidder.
3. The minimum number of technically qualified bidders for the second round has been reduced from three to two for Part D minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (a)

  • Statement 1 is correct. Exploration Licences under Section 10BA cover the 29 critical and deep-seated minerals in the Seventh Schedule of the MMDR Act.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. EL blocks use a descending reverse auction won by the lowest share; the ascending forward auction applies to critical mineral blocks for composite licence and mining lease.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The Mineral (Auction) Third Amendment Rules, 2026, notified on 16 October 2026, made this change.

Q4. Consider the following pairs:
1. ANVESH : Indian Bureau of Mines portal for mining data analytics
2. ICAR-IGFRI : Dehradun, Uttarakhand
3. Pralay : Quasi-ballistic missile developed by Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. Only one pair
  2. Only two pairs
  3. All three pairs
  4. None of the pairs
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (b)

  • Pair 1 is correctly matched. ANVESH was launched by the Indian Bureau of Mines to give access to data such as production, despatch, sale prices and trade.
  • Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. The Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute is at Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh.
  • Pair 3 is correctly matched. RCI Hyderabad and other DRDO laboratories developed Pralay, and BDL produced it.

Q5. Under the Centre’s joint advisory on fodder and livestock works, what is the district-level ceiling on the material component of works under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025?

  1. 20%
  2. 30%
  3. 60%
  4. 40%
Show answer and explanation

Answer: (d)

  • Option (a) is incorrect. 20% is not the ceiling mentioned in the advisory.
  • Option (b) is incorrect. 30% is the livestock-dependence marker for Gram Panchayats needing particular attention, not the material cap.
  • Option (c) is incorrect. 60% is not a ceiling in the advisory.
  • Option (d) is correct. The advisory reiterates a district-level ceiling of 40% on the material component.

Mains Practice Questions

Q. Satellite-based direct-to-device services promise wider connectivity but raise spectrum and interference concerns. Discuss TRAI’s recommended framework in this context. (250 words, GS Paper 3)

Approach: Explain the SCN authorisation and SCNaaS model, then the spectrum rules (administrative feeder-link assignment, IMT D2D on non-interference basis); flag interference and sharing issues and the need for DoT notification and NFAP amendment.

Q. Critical mineral security requires both mining and processing capacity, and States are central to the first. Examine with reference to recent auction reforms. (250 words, GS Paper 3 / GS Paper 2)

Approach: Cover the 64% auction success rate, the cut in minimum bidders, EL auctions and ANVESH, then the Centre-State split on mining and the need for States to operationalise mines.

FAQs

What did TRAI recommend for satellite communication in India?

TRAI recommended a new Satellite Communication Network Provider Authorisation under the Telecommunications Act, 2023, with spectrum assigned administratively, an 8% authorisation fee on AGR and permission for direct-to-device services.

Is TRAI’s recommendation binding on the government?

No, the recommendations go to the Department of Telecommunications, which must accept them, notify the rules and amend the National Frequency Allocation Plan before they take effect.

Which State got the highest tax devolution on 5 November 2026?

Uttar Pradesh received the largest amount, ₹19,208 crore, out of the ₹1,09,019 crore instalment released to all 28 States on 5 November 2026.

When is the Kimberley Process Plenary in New Delhi?

The Kimberley Process Plenary is scheduled from 30 November to 4 December 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, preceded by the New Delhi Diamond Dialogue on 29 November 2026.

हिंदी सारांश

5 नवंबर 2026 को पीआईबी की प्रमुख खबरों में ट्राई ने उपग्रह संचार नेटवर्क प्रदाताओं के लिए नई प्राधिकरण व्यवस्था की सिफारिश की। खान मंत्रालय ने महत्वपूर्ण खनिजों के नौवें चरण की नीलामी में 20 ब्लॉक पेश किए और अन्वेषण लाइसेंस के तीसरे चरण में 11 ब्लॉक रखे। ग्रामीण विकास और पशुपालन विभागों ने वीबी-जी राम जी के अंतर्गत चारा और पशुधन से जुड़े 22 कार्यों की सलाह जारी की। केंद्र ने राज्यों को 1,09,019 करोड़ रुपये की कर हस्तांतरण किस्त जल्दी जारी की, जिसमें उत्तर प्रदेश को सबसे अधिक 19,208 करोड़ रुपये मिले। भारत इस वर्ष किम्बरली प्रक्रिया का अध्यक्ष है और नई दिल्ली में पूर्ण बैठक 30 नवंबर से 4 दिसंबर तक होगी। डीआरडीओ ने प्रलय मिसाइल का सफल परीक्षण किया।

Sources: PIB release 2333145; PIB release 2333123; PIB release 2333352; PIB release 2333238; PIB release 2332844; PIB release 2333276; PIB release 2333046; PIB release 2333047; PIB release 2333166; PIB release 2333046; PIB release 2333177; PIB release 2333012; PIB release 2333256; PIB release 2332934; PIB release 2333191.

Related reading on GSMitra: PIB News Today: 5 November 2026.

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