UP Special TET Question Paper 2026 (3 November): Shift 1 PDF, Expected Answers and Analysis

Teachers who appeared in the Special TET on 3 November want three things now: the paper, the likely answers and a clear idea of whether they have crossed the qualifying mark. This page covers all three for Shift 1, the primary-level paper. The Uttar Pradesh Education Service Selection Commission (UPESSC) conducted the exam under Advertisement No. 03/2026. It is an eligibility test, so there is no rank list or vacancy-based cut-off. A candidate qualifies by reaching the fixed marks.

Download UP Special TET 2026 question paper PDF (3 November, Shift 1)

Shift	Time	Level	Download
Shift 1	9:30 AM–12:00 noon	Primary (Classes 1–5)	Shift 1 question paper (PDF, 4 MB)
Shift 2	2:30 PM–5:00 PM	Upper primary (Classes 6–8)	To be added

This is a scan of a candidate’s booklet, not an official UPESSC upload. It has 25 of the 32 printed pages. Pages 10–14, which hold the English and Urdu options of Language II, are not in the scan, so Q61–90 appear only in the Sanskrit option. Pen marks on the pages were made by the candidate and are not the answer key: several of them differ from the expected answers below (for example Q29, Q31 and Q45).

Special TET 2026 exam details from the official advertisement

Item	Details
Conducting body	Uttar Pradesh Education Service Selection Commission (UPESSC), Prayagraj
Advertisement	No. 03/2026, Special Teacher Eligibility Test (Special TET)
Exam date	3 November 2026, two shifts
Exam cities	Six divisional headquarters: Prayagraj, Lucknow, Varanasi, Gorakhpur, Meerut and Agra
Questions and marks	150 MCQs with four options each, 1 mark each, 150 marks in all
Duration	2 hours 30 minutes (150 minutes)
Negative marking	None
Medium	Hindi and English, except for the language subjects
Answer sheet	OMR, black ballpoint pen only
Qualifying marks	General: 90 of 150 (60%). SC, ST, OBC, freedom fighter dependants, ex-servicemen and persons with disabilities: 82 of 150 (55%). EWS (unreserved): 82 of 150

Special TET 2026 attendance: how many candidates appeared?

A total of 93,681 candidates appeared in the Special TET, which is 87.92% of those registered, according to an official statement reported by PTI. The UPESSC Deputy Secretary gave the shift-wise figures below. The total registered figure is the sum of the two shifts.

Shift	Level	Registered	Appeared	Attendance
Shift 1	Classes 1–5	58,353	50,666	86.8%
Shift 2	Classes 6–8	48,194	43,015	89.25%
Total		1,06,547	93,681	87.92%

The same report quotes UPESSC Chairman Prashant Kumar as saying the exam was held peacefully, and says an impersonator was caught at a Lucknow centre and handed to the police. Amrit Vichar reported that the exam ran at 131 centres.

UP Special TET Shift 1 paper analysis: section-wise review

The Shift 1 paper had five compulsory parts of 30 questions each. Child development and the Hindi grammar questions were the most scoring. Mathematics took the most time, because almost every question was a multi-step word problem. Environmental Studies went well beyond the environment, with many civics questions and some higher-level biology.

Part	Section	Questions	Difficulty
I	Child Development and Teaching Method	1–30	Easy
II	Language I: Hindi	31–60	Easy to moderate
III	Language II: English, Urdu or Sanskrit	61–90	Sanskrit: moderate (English and Urdu not reviewed)
IV	Mathematics	91–120	Moderate and lengthy
V	Environmental Studies	121–150	Moderate

Part I: Child Development and Teaching Method (Q1–30)

Most questions were direct definitions and simple classroom situations. Topics included Piaget (Q22), Pavlov (Q17), Thorndike (Q24), Köhler (Q27), the Zone of Proximal Development (Q10), reinforcement (Q14), inclusive education (Q4, Q18, Q25), teaching maxims (Q13, Q28) and the questioning skill (Q30).

Part II: Hindi (Q31–60)

Grammar dominated this section: संधि (Q32, Q36, Q42, Q55), वाच्य (Q50), काल (Q49), विराम चिह्न (Q37, Q56), सर्वनाम (Q52), प्रत्यय (Q41), मुहावरे और लोकोक्ति (Q38, Q46) and उच्चारण-स्थान (Q45). Two literature questions asked the authors of पंचवटी (Q34) and रश्मिरथी (Q54). Q58–60 came from an unseen passage on the Green Revolution and chemical fertilisers.

Part III: Sanskrit option (Q61–90)

The Sanskrit option tested सन्धि (Q70, Q72, Q74, Q83), उपसर्ग (Q64, Q65), प्रत्यय (Q69), लकार (Q75, Q78), वाच्य (Q79), समास (Q63), विभक्ति (Q66, Q67) and प्रत्याहार (Q81). Q62 was a teaching question on remedial instruction, and Q88–90 came from a passage about a school visit to a museum.

Part IV: Mathematics (Q91–120)

Nearly every question was set in a real-life situation, so reading the question took time. The main areas were fractions and decimals (Q91, Q97, Q98, Q106), percentages and profit (Q93, Q96, Q99, Q104), LCM and HCF (Q94, Q116), mensuration (Q101, Q102, Q108, Q109, Q111, Q112, Q119), simple interest (Q115, Q120) and dates and calendars (Q113, Q118). Q107 was a pie chart and Q117 a bar graph. Q110 used the cyclic quadrilateral.

Part V: Environmental Studies (Q121–150)

Civics took a large share: the Objectives Resolution (Q121), collective responsibility (Q123), EVM and VVPAT (Q135), the 73rd Amendment (Q136), judicial review (Q137) and committees on Panchayati Raj (Q147). Geography covered the Central Highlands (Q124), coastal rivers (Q142), mangroves (Q143) and the Ganga at Devprayag (Q145). The hardest biology questions were on zygomorphic flowers (Q134) and asymmetrical animals (Q144). Environment proper included cryopreservation (Q141) and biomagnification (Q149).

UP Special TET 2026 Shift 1 expected answers (unofficial)

These answers were prepared by GSMitra and are not the UPESSC answer key. The official key is the final authority. Open each part to check your answers. Question numbers follow the booklet, and answers for English and Urdu (Q61–90) are not given because those pages are not in the scan.

Part I: Child Development and Teaching Method (Q1–30)

Quick key: 1-D · 2-A · 3-D · 4-A · 5-C · 6-D · 7-C · 8-A · 9-C · 10-D · 11-B · 12-D · 13-A · 14-A · 15-A · 16-C · 17-B · 18-C · 19-A · 20-A · 21-D · 22-A · 23-B · 24-C · 25-A · 26-B · 27-D · 28-A · 29-B · 30-C

Q	Question (short)	Expected answer
1	Example of cognitive development	(D) Learning to solve a new problem
2	Related to social inclusion	(A) Gender
3	Child trying different ways to solve a problem	(D) Problem solver
4	Able child cannot access parts of the school	(A) The environment may be creating a barrier
5	NOT primarily an environmental agency	(C) Genes
6	Able student avoids study, expects failure	(D) Motivation and self-beliefs
7	Non-verbal communication	(C) Facial expression
8	NOT generally considered learning	(A) Increase in height due to maturation
9	Fluctuating learning curve	(C) Variation in effort or reinforcement
10	Zone of Proximal Development	(D) Alone and with appropriate assistance
11	Braille uses	(B) Tactile symbols
12	Motivation	(D) Processes that energise and direct behaviour
13	Maxim: simple to complex	(A) Begin with simpler ideas, then add complexity
14	Consequence that makes behaviour more likely	(A) Reinforcement
15	Counselling contributes to	(A) Adjustment
16	Generating many solutions	(C) Creativity
17	Pavlov: food naturally produces	(B) Salivation
18	Basic idea of inclusive education	(C) Educating children together while addressing diverse needs
19	Child development means	(A) Changes and continuities across domains
20	Expressive ability	(A) Drawing a picture to communicate an idea
21	TLM stands for	(D) Teaching Learning Material
22	Piaget on children	(A) Active constructors of knowledge
23	Policy that promotes creativity	(B) Exploration, original ideas, multiple solutions
24	Thorndike: learning through	(C) Trial and error
25	Child with hearing impairment	(A) Appropriate communication and instructional support
26	Cognition	(B) Mental processes of knowing and thinking
27	Köhler’s chimpanzee and stick	(D) Insight learning
28	Maxim: particular to general	(A) Examples to a general principle
29	Teacher alone explains to a group	(B) Lecture method
30	Too many questions, too little wait time	(C) Questioning skill

Part II: Hindi (Q31–60)

Quick key: 31-D · 32-C · 33-C · 34-C · 35-B · 36-D · 37-B · 38-C · 39-B · 40-A · 41-A · 42-C · 43-B · 44-D · 45-D · 46-A · 47-C · 48-B · 49-B · 50-C · 51-C · 52-C · 53-C · 54-D · 55-C · 56-B · 57-C · 58-C · 59-D · 60-C

Q	Question (short)	Expected answer
31	संस्कृत के बिना परिवर्तन वाले शब्द	(D) तत्सम
32	‘महोदय’ की संधि	(C) गुण संधि
33	वर्ग का अनुनासिक वर्ण	(C) पाँचवाँ वर्ण
34	‘पंचवटी’ के रचयिता	(C) मैथिलीशरण गुप्त
35	स्वर और व्यंजन में अंतर का आधार	(B) उच्चारण
36	‘वागीश’ का संधि-विच्छेद	(D) वाक् + ईश
37	उचित विराम चिह्न	(B) राम, सीता और लक्ष्मण वन गए।
38	आँख का तारा होना	(C) बहुत प्रिय होना
39	‘दिन’ का विलोम	(B) रात
40	‘आगरा’ का बहुवचन	(A) बहुवचन नहीं होगा
41	‘पढ़ैया’ में प्रत्यय	(A) ऐया
42	‘अधोगति’ का संधि-विच्छेद	(C) अधः + गति
43	‘साफ करवाई’ में क्रिया	(B) प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया
44	‘नील’ में मात्रा	(D) ी
45	‘श’ का उच्चारण-स्थान	(D) तालव्य
46	ओस चाटने से प्यास नहीं बुझती	(A) बहुत कम चीज़ या उपाय से काम नहीं चलता
47	वाक्य के अंग	(C) दो
48	‘घोड़ा’ में मात्राएँ	(B) ो और ा
49	‘वह कल जाएगा’ का काल	(B) भविष्यत् काल
50	‘मोहन पत्र लिखता है’ का कर्मवाच्य	(C) मोहन द्वारा पत्र लिखा जाता है।
51	ध्वनि और वर्ण में अंतर	(C) ध्वनि मौखिक, वर्ण उसका लिखित रूप
52	‘जो’ और ‘सो’ सर्वनाम	(C) संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम
53	‘माला’ का तुकांत	(C) ताला
54	‘रश्मिरथी’ के रचयिता	(D) रामधारी सिंह दिनकर
55	‘पवन’ का संधि-विच्छेद	(C) पो + अन
56	सही विराम चिह्न	(B) क्या तुमने अपना काम पूरा कर लिया?
57	‘श्र’ किन वर्णों से बना	(C) श् + र
58	गद्यांश: बढ़ती आबादी की चुनौती	(C) फ़सलों की अधिक पैदावार सुनिश्चित करना
59	गद्यांश: गुणवत्ता के लिए सही नहीं	(D) रासायनिक उर्वरकों और कीटनाशकों का
60	गद्यांश: हरित क्रांति का उद्देश्य	(C) खाद्यान्न में आत्मनिर्भरता

Part III: Sanskrit option (Q61–90)

Quick key: 61-D · 62-C · 63-C · 64-B · 65-D · 66-D · 67-D · 68-C · 69-C · 70-A · 71-B · 72-A · 73-B · 74-B · 75-C · 76-A · 77-C · 78-D · 79-A · 80-C · 81-A · 82-B · 83-A · 84-B · 85-C · 86-D · 87-D · 88-C · 89-C · 90-C

Q	Question (short)	Expected answer
61	द्विवचन का शुद्ध वाक्य	(D) नद्यौ वहतः।
62	एक ही नियम की त्रुटि पर लक्षित अभ्यास	(C) उपचारात्मकाध्यापनम्
63	‘राज्ञः भवनम्’ का समस्तपद	(C) राजभवनम्
64	‘निर्गच्छति’ में उपसर्ग	(B) निर्
65	धातु के पूर्व जुड़ने वाला पदांश	(D) उपसर्गः
66	‘शैलः’ द्वितीया एकवचन	(D) शैलम्
67	‘अलं कलहेन’ में तृतीया	(D) ‘अलम्’ के योग से
68	‘पृथ्वी’ का पर्यायवाची	(C) धरा
69	‘पठनीयम्’ में प्रत्यय	(C) अनीयर्
70	‘मनोहरः’ का विच्छेद	(A) मनः + हरः; विसर्गस्थाने ‘ओ’
71	‘अग्रतः’ का विपरीत	(B) पृष्ठतः
72	‘सङ्कल्पः’ में पंचमवर्ण	(A) ङ्
73	स्पर्श व्यञ्जनों के वर्ग	(B) पञ्चसु वर्गेषु
74	‘मनोबलम्’ में सन्धि	(B) विसर्ग-सन्धिः
75	‘आ+धाव्’ मध्यम पुरुष द्विवचन	(C) आधावथः
76	‘वन्दे मातरम्’ किस ग्रन्थ में	(A) आनन्दमठः
77	‘पितुः भगिनी’	(C) पितृष्वसा
78	‘पठेत्’ का लकार	(D) विधिलिङ्
79	‘रामेण गम्यते’ का कर्तृवाच्य	(A) रामः गच्छति।
80	समानाक्षर-स्वर	(C) ऋ
81	प्रत्याहार ‘हल्’	(A) सर्वेषां व्यञ्जनानाम्
82	सम्बन्धवाचक सर्वनाम-युग्म	(B) यः — सः
83	‘दिग्गजः’ का विच्छेद	(A) दिक् + गजः
84	‘अधः’ का विपरीत	(B) उपरि
85	संख्या 39	(C) नवत्रिंशत्
86	“नासिकया ___”	(D) जिघ्रामि
87	दोनों शब्द स्त्रीलिंग	(D) जिह्वा – नासिका
88	गद्यांश: छात्राः कुत्र गतवन्तः	(C) संग्रहालयम्
89	गद्यांश: मार्गदर्शकः किं वर्णितवान्	(C) वस्तूनाम् उपयोगं इतिहासं च
90	गद्यांश: अध्ययनं कीदृशं भवति	(C) रोचकं स्मरणीयं च

Part IV: Mathematics (Q91–120), with working

Quick key: 91-A · 92-C · 93-A · 94-A · 95-B · 96-A · 97-B · 98-D · 99-C · 100-D · 101-D · 102-B · 103-D · 104-B · 105-A · 106-A · 107-C · 108-A · 109-D · 110-A · 111-B · 112-D · 113-D · 114-B · 115-A · 116-D · 117-A · 118-D · 119-C · 120-D

Q	Question (short)	Expected answer	Working
91	Cost of 2.4 kg paper at ₹48.75	(A) ₹117.00	48.75 × 2.4
92	Bottles of 375 mL from 5.4 L after using 1.275 L	(C) Yes; 11 bottles, 0 mL left	4,125 ÷ 375 = 11
93	30% boys, 20% girls, equal participants	(A) 24%	Girls = 1.5 × boys; 0.6 ÷ 2.5
94	Kits above 200, in rows of 18 or 24	(A) 34 kits	LCM 72 → 216; (216 − 12) ÷ 6
95	Ribbon for 15 students	(B) 4.5 m	2.4 ÷ 8 × 15
96	Selling price at 20% profit	(A) ₹3,096	2,580 × 1.2
97	Water left in jar	(B) 2 17/20 litres	3½ × 3/5 + ¾
98	Tank fraction left	(D) 3/8	5/8 − 1/4
99	Dried apricots	(C) 125 g	Solids 100 g ÷ 0.8
100	Ink left	(D) 0.70 mL	2.5 − 24 × 0.075
101	Surface area of cuboid from 24 cubes	(D) 832 cm²	16 × 12 × 8 cm
102	Other diagonal of rhombus	(B) 16 cm	2 × √(10² − 6²)
103	Pencils in each box	(D) 65	(1,000 − 350) ÷ 2 ÷ 5
104	Aircraft sold for ₹840 million	(B) 36 aircraft	840 ÷ (20 × 7/6)
105	Juice packs per refrigerator	(A) 65	(720 − 270 − 125) ÷ 5
106	Ration mix left	(A) 2 3/8 kg	3½ × 5/7 + 5/8 − ¾
107	Pie chart: cricket minus basketball	(C) 144 students	20% of 720
108	Tiles for courtyard	(A) 1,536	48 × 32
109	Playground area left	(D) 401 m²	25 × 18 − 7²
110	Cyclic quadrilateral: x and y	(A) 14°	97.5° − 83.5°
111	Water in tanks A and B	(B) Tank B, by 375 litres	3,375 − 3,000
112	Water per bucket	(D) 180 litres	4,320 × 5/6 ÷ 20
113	45 days after Friday, 28 June	(D) 12 August, Monday	45 mod 7 = 3
114	Most pages for ₹350	(B) 104 pages	₹3.50 a page; 364 − 14 = 350
115	Amount on ₹8,000 (rate = years)	(A) ₹11,920	r² = 49; 8,000 × 1.49
116	Longest equal pieces of 96 and 144 cm	(D) 48 cm	HCF
117	Bar graph: Red + Green share	(A) 30%	(24 + 30) ÷ 180
118	Day 50 from 20 January 2028	(D) 9 March 2028	2028 is a leap year
119	Rope around 18 m × 11 m	(C) 58 m	2 × (18 + 11)
120	Years for ₹5,000 to reach ₹6,200 at 8%	(D) 3 years	1,200 ÷ 400

Part V: Environmental Studies (Q121–150)

Quick key: 121-A · 122-C · 123-D · 124-C · 125-B · 126-D · 127-D · 128-A · 129-D · 130-A · 131-B · 132-D · 133-D · 134-C · 135-C · 136-D · 137-B · 138-B · 139-D · 140-C · 141-C · 142-A · 143-A · 144-D · 145-C · 146-A · 147-D · 148-C · 149-D · 150-B

Q	Question (short)	Expected answer
121	Objectives Resolution was the foundation of	(A) The Preamble
122	Order of steps with GIS and remote sensing	(C) A → B → C
123	Council of Ministers collectively responsible to	(D) The Lok Sabha
124	Central Highlands (Assertion-Reason)	(C) Both true, R does not explain A
125	Link between environment and disease	(B) Human health
126	Nutrients and functions	(D) 1-C, 2-E, 3-D, 4-A, 5-B
127	Question type for broader syllabus coverage	(D) Short answer questions
128	Special freight rail routes	(A) Dedicated Freight Corridors
129	Platyhelminthes are known as	(D) Flatworms
130	Quality from group and playground activities	(A) Leadership and decision-making
131	Evergreen or deciduous is based on	(B) Leaf habit
132	Less exposure to pollution and unsafe water	(D) Public health protection
133	Urban gap between housing demand and supply	(D) Housing shortage
134	Zygomorphic flower	(C) Pea
135	EVM versus VVPAT	(C) EVM records votes; VVPAT gives a paper slip
136	73rd Amendment Act, 1992	(D) Constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions
137	Courts can strike down a law	(B) Judicial Review and Constitutional Supremacy
138	Behaviour explained by purpose	(B) Teleological approach
139	Why a new nation needs a Constitution	(D) Legal framework for governance, protects rights
140	Fairs and festivals of India	(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
141	Preservation in liquid nitrogen	(C) Cryopreservation
142	Short, non-perennial rivers	(A) Coastal rivers
143	Forests on tidal coasts and deltas	(A) Mangrove forest
144	Asymmetrical animals	(D) Sponges
145	Rivers that form the Ganga at Devprayag	(C) Bhagirathi and Alaknanda
146	Pucca houses for the urban poor	(A) PMAY-U
147	Committees and recommendations	(D) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
148	Two or more couples linked by a sibling bond	(C) Collateral Joint Family
149	Toxins rising up the food chain	(D) Biomagnification
150	Choosing games for learning	(B) Intended learning outcomes

Questions that may be disputed

The expected answers to these questions are the best available option, but candidates may want to check them against the official key.

• Q47: Hindi grammar books generally give two parts of a sentence, उद्देश्य and विधेय, so the expected answer is (C).
• Q75: the question does not name the tense. The answer आधावथः assumes लट् लकार, the present tense.
• Q85: the common form for 39 is एकोनचत्वारिंशत्, which is not an option. नवत्रिंशत् is the only option that means 39.
• Q101: the wording on layers and rows is awkward. The answer takes the cuboid as 4 × 3 × 2 cubes, which uses all 24.
• Q124: both statements about the Central Highlands are accurate, but the link between them is arguable. The expected answer is (C).
• Q127: objective-type questions are the usual textbook answer but are not listed. Among the options given, short answer questions cover the most syllabus in limited time.
• Q140: the Pushkar Fair is held in Rajasthan, not Gujarat, so statement 3 is wrong. (C) is the only option without it.

How to check your Special TET score against the qualifying marks

Each correct answer earns 1 mark and a wrong answer costs nothing, so the raw score is simply the number of correct answers. Use these steps with the expected answers above.

• Match your OMR copy or memory of your answers with each part’s quick key.
• Count the correct answers in Parts I, II, IV and V, then in your Language II option.
• Compare the total with your qualifying mark: 90 for the general category or 82 for the categories listed in the advertisement.
• Treat the result as an estimate until UPESSC publishes the official key.

Normalisation: paragraph 10.2 of the advertisement says that if the exam is held in more than one shift, marks will be compared through normalisation, and normalised marks will decide qualification. The two shifts on 3 November were for different levels. As of 5 November 2026, the notices listed on the UPESSC website did not say how this rule will apply.

Why UPESSC held the Special TET in 2026

The Special TET exists because of a Supreme Court ruling on serving teachers. According to the UPESSC advertisement, the Supreme Court made TET compulsory for all teachers in Civil Appeal No. 1385/2025 (Anjuman Ishaat-e-Taleem Trust v. State of Maharashtra) on 1 September 2025. Its order of 29 May 2026, on a review petition by Uttar Pradesh, requires all serving teachers to pass by 31 August 2028.

The state government then decided to hold a separate test for teachers already in service at the primary and upper primary levels. The test also covers about 2,500 special teachers for children with special needs (CWSN), following a separate Supreme Court order of 7 March 2025 in Rajneesh Kumar Pandey v. Union of India.

Primary and upper primary papers compared

Section	Primary (Classes 1–5)	Upper primary (Classes 6–8)
Child Development and Teaching Method	30	30
Language I: Hindi	30	30
Language II: English, Urdu or Sanskrit	30	30
Mathematics	30	Mathematics and Science: 60, or Social Studies: 60
Environmental Studies	30	—
Total	150	150

What happens next: answer key and result

UPESSC has not announced dates for the answer key or the result as of 5 November 2026. The advertisement says only that marks will be published on the website and that candidates who reach the qualifying marks will receive an eligibility certificate. New notices appear on the UPESSC website. This page will carry the Shift 2 paper and the official key when they are available.

स्पेशल टीईटी 2026 प्रश्न पत्र: हिंदी में सार

उत्तर प्रदेश शिक्षा सेवा चयन आयोग (UPESSC) ने विज्ञापन संख्या 03/2026 के तहत 3 नवंबर 2026 को विशेष शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा (Special TET) दो पालियों में कराई। पहली पाली (सुबह 9:30 से दोपहर 12:00 बजे) कक्षा 1 से 5 के लिए और दूसरी पाली (दोपहर 2:30 से शाम 5:00 बजे) कक्षा 6 से 8 के लिए थी।

परीक्षा में 150 प्रश्न थे, हर प्रश्न 1 अंक का था और नकारात्मक अंकन नहीं था। सामान्य वर्ग के लिए अर्हक अंक 90 और अनुसूचित जाति, अनुसूचित जनजाति, अन्य पिछड़ा वर्ग तथा EWS आदि के लिए 82 हैं। पहली पाली का प्रश्न पत्र ऊपर PDF में उपलब्ध है। ऊपर दिए गए उत्तर GSMitra के संभावित उत्तर हैं। आयोग की आधिकारिक उत्तर कुंजी ही अंतिम मानी जाएगी, जो 5 नवंबर 2026 तक जारी नहीं हुई थी।

Frequently asked questions

Where can I download the UP Special TET 2026 Shift 1 question paper?

The Shift 1 paper of 3 November 2026 can be downloaded as a PDF from this page. It is a scan of a candidate’s booklet, with 25 of 32 printed pages. The English and Urdu options of Language II are not in the scan.

Has UPESSC released the Special TET 2026 answer key?

No. UPESSC had not released an official answer key as of 5 November 2026 and had not announced a date. The answers on this page are GSMitra’s expected answers and are unofficial.

What are the qualifying marks for UP Special TET 2026?

A general category candidate needs 90 out of 150 (60%). SC, ST, OBC, EWS (unreserved), freedom fighter dependants, ex-servicemen and persons with disabilities need 82 out of 150 (55%), according to the UPESSC advertisement.

Is there negative marking in UP Special TET 2026?

No. The UPESSC advertisement says there is no negative marking. Each of the 150 questions carries 1 mark.

Which shift of the Special TET was for which level?

Shift 1 (9:30 AM to 12:00 noon) was for Classes 1 to 5, and Shift 2 (2:30 PM to 5:00 PM) was for Classes 6 to 8, according to a PTI report of the official statement.

How many candidates appeared in UP Special TET 2026?

A total of 93,681 candidates appeared, or 87.92% of those registered. Shift 1 had 50,666 candidates present out of 58,353, and Shift 2 had 43,015 out of 48,194, according to PTI.

Who had to appear in the Special TET 2026?

The Special TET was for teachers serving in eligible primary and upper primary schools in Uttar Pradesh, along with special teachers for children with special needs (CWSN). The Supreme Court’s order of 29 May 2026 requires serving teachers to pass TET by 31 August 2028.

Is UP Special TET the same as Super TET?

No. Special TET is an eligibility test for teachers already in service, under Advertisement No. 03/2026. Super TET 2026 is a recruitment exam for 12,405 assistant teacher posts, under Advertisement No. 05/2026.

Related pages on GSMitra

• UP Super TET 2026: complete guide
• Super TET previous year papers with answer key
• Super TET syllabus 2026
• GSMitra MCQ Test Builder for timed practice

Sources: UPESSC detailed advertisement No. 03/2026 (PDF), notice No. 1940 dated 3 September 2026 (PDF) and notice No. 3112 dated 23 October 2026 (PDF), all on upessc.up.gov.in. Attendance figures: PTI via ThePrint, 3 November 2026. Question paper: a candidate’s booklet.

Prepared by the GSMitra Editorial Team. Last updated 5 November 2026.